U.S. Government Final Exam

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Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Isaiah’s father works for the government of a democracy, and he has the power to execute, enforce, and administer the law. What type of basic powers does Isaiah’s father handle?

a.	legislative powers	c.	confederative powers
b.	executive powers	d.	judicial powers

Which of the following ideas was NOT promoted by the “social contract” theory?

a.	common defense	c.	limited government
b.	popular sovereignty	d.	individual rights

In this political cartoon, which statement best describes how the two chefs make a democracy stew?

a.	A democracy is made of ingredients added deliberately and precisely.
b.	A democracy cannot have competing interests.
c.	A democracy is made by blending and adjusting competing views and interests.
d.	A democracy is made of similar views and interests.

Although the first state constitutions differed considerably, one of the most common features was the principle of popular sovereignty. If someone were running for President on a platform of popular sovereignty, what principle would he or she be emphasizing?

a.	separation of powers	c.	limited government
b.	consent of citizens	d.	civil rights

Although the Articles of Confederation established a relationship among the states, the 1780s was a critical period because it exposed weaknesses in the document. What resulted from these weaknesses?

a.	mass migration from southern states to western territories
b.	economic and political instability in every state
c.	unfair taxation of some citizens without representation in Congress
d.	a banking system inadequate to fulfill every state’s needs

What did the smaller states fear during the framing of the Constitution that led to a series of compromise proposals?

a.	They were worried that the larger states would have the power to regulate interstate commerce.
b.	They were worried that the larger states would have greater representation in Congress and would dominate the government.
c.	They were worried that the smaller states would be unable to participate in the slave trade.
d.	They were worried that the larger states would have fewer separations of power and would use this loophole to gain control of the Senate.

The concept known as ____ means that basic powers are distributed among three distinct branches of government.

a.	constitutionalism	c.	limited government
b.	separation of powers	d.	distributed government

In 1999, President Clinton used his executive powers to send troops to the Yugoslav province of Kosovo. Considering that only Congress can declare war, how was President Clinton able to send troops into combat without such a declaration?

a.	As the President of the United States, Clinton had exclusive authority over Congress.
b.	As commander in chief, the President can declare war if conditions set forth in the War-Peace Agreement are met.
c.	President Clinton was able to use his powers of veto to overturn Congress’s decision not to send troops.
d.	As the commander in chief, Clinton used his power to make an informal amendment without congressional approval.

Congress appropriated grant money to Sam’s school district to improve its school lunch program. In exchange for the grant, three conditions had to be met:

(1)	The money had to be used for this specific purpose.
(2)	The state had to give the school district matching funds.
(3)	An agency had to be established to administer the grant.

What type of grant was Sam’s school district given?

a.	nutritional grant	c.	block grant
b.	categorical grant	d.	project grant

10.

A fugitive from justice in one state is captured in another state. According to the laws of extradition, what will happen to this person?

a.	The fugitive will be tried in the state where he or she was captured.
b.	The fugitive must appear before the supreme court in the state where the crime was committed.
c.	The fugitive will be returned to the state that has jurisdiction over the crime.
d.	The fugitive will be sent to a third, impartial state, where he or she will be tried.

11.

What clause of the Constitution states that no State can draw unreasonable distinctions between its own residents and those persons who live in other States?

a.	privileges and immunities clause	c.	interstate compact clause
b.	full faith and credit clause	d.	extradition and immunities clause

12.

Why are political parties considered a vital link between the people and their government?

a.	The only way to be nominated for President is by affiliation with a major political party.
b.	They are considered the principal means by which the will of the people is made known to the government.
c.	They are considered the only way of decentralizing the power of the government.
d.	Because the United States is a democracy, political parties are considered the only way to bring people together.

13.

Why should the major political parties be concerned about a strong minor party candidate on the ballot for President?

a.	Historically, fewer people vote when there are more than two candidates on the ballot.
b.	Minor party candidates are unable to take clear-cut stands on controversial issues.
c.	Campaign funds are divided between all candidates, so there is less money available to the major parties.
d.	Minor party candidates can pull a large number of votes from either party, causing an upset.

14.

To whom does the Constitution give the power to set franchise qualifications, and what has been done with this power in the years since then?

a.	It gives the power to business owners, who have used it to gain monopolies and power internationally.
b.	It gives the power to the courts, which have used it to greatly limit the powers of state and local governments.
c.	It gives the power to the states, and this power has greatly expanded the growth of the American electorate.
d.	It gives the power to white, adult males, and this power has been severely limited.

15.

Which of the following is a reason for voter registration?

a.	to prove a potential voter’s ability to read and write
b.	to prove payment of property taxes
c.	to discourage women from voting
d.	to prevent fraudulent voting

16.

The Civil Rights Act of 1964 continued a pattern established by earlier Civil Rights legislation that emphasized

a.	legislative action to overcome racial barriers and the use of state courts to protect minority voter literacy testing.
b.	judicial action to overcome racial barriers and the use of federal court-ordered injunctions.
c.	voting rights for all Americans, including women and African Americans.
d.	protections for the rights of minority voters that established the minimum voting age of 18.

17.

If you wanted to run for President of the United States, but you did not win a party’s endorsement, what could you do to keep yourself in the running?

a.	get the endorsement of a state legislature
b.	commandeer a national party convention
c.	match government mandated campaign funds
d.	announce yourself as a candidate for President

18.

About 300,000 physicians belong to the American Medical Association (AMA). Which of the following best describes this group?

a.	The AMA is an economic special interest group that pressures the government to increase aid to students and the underprivileged.
b.	The AMA is a business special interest group that elects members to political office in the hopes of influencing public policy.
c.	The AMA is a labor economic interest group that raises funds to rewrite worldwide legislation and foreign policy.
d.	The AMA is an economic professional interest group that impacts public policy for the welfare of the profession and its members.

19.

Which is NOT a reason why the Framers of the Constitution set up a bicameral legislature?

a.	They were familiar with the British form of government, which had two houses.
b.	They created two houses to settle the conflict between the larger and smaller states.
c.	They expected a legislature with two houses would streamline the process of government.
d.	They favored a Congress with two houses in order that one house might act as a check on the other.

20.

In 1997, 26-year-old Representative Harold Ford Jr. became a member of the 105th Congress. What happened the year before this that made his election possible?

a.	Congress passed the Voter Registration Act of 1997.
b.	Congress lowered the age of a member of the House to 26.
c.	He had lived in the state of Tennessee for at least seven years.
d.	He celebrated his twenty-fifth birthday.

21.

Why is a senator’s term in office different in length than that of a representative’s?

a.	Senators’ terms are shorter because they require less experience than representatives do.
b.	Senators’ terms are longer so they can be staggered; therefore, a majority of senators is always experienced.
c.	Senators’ terms are limited to only one term in office; therefore their term in office is longer.
d.	Senators’ terms are shorter in order to make sure they accurately represent their constituents.

22.

How does the Constitution differ in the powers it gives Congress to tax and to borrow?

a.	Congress’s power to tax is unlimited, and there are no limits on borrowing.
b.	The Constitution limits Congress’s power to tax, but there are no limits on borrowing.
c.	Congress’s power to borrow is not unlimited, but its power to tax is.
d.	The Constitution limits Congress’s power to tax and it bars Congress from borrowing.

23.

Congress shares powers with the President in the field of foreign affairs. What other powers do Congress and the President share?

a.	judicial powers	c.	territorial powers
b.	postal powers	d.	war powers

24.

The Constitution makes no mention of them, yet these bodies play an essential role in the lawmaking process. Their job is to sift through and decide the fate of bills. What are they?

a.	quorums	c.	standing committees
b.	committees of the whole	d.	conference committees

25.

If a bill receives congressional approval by both the House and the Senate, why does the bill not immediately become a law?

a.	The bill still must receive the approval of the conference committee that sponsored the legislation.
b.	The bill must be voted on in the next election.
c.	The President has the option to sign it, veto it, or allow it to become law without signing it within ten days.
d.	The bill must be formally presented to the President at the next State of the Union meeting.

26.

As directed by Article I of the Constitution, when are congressional seats reapportioned?

a.	following each Presidential election	c.	after each decennial census
b.	by popular demand	d.	every six years

27.

Who introduces bills in the House of Representatives?

a.	members of the House	c.	lobbyists
b.	the President of the United States	d.	the Supreme Court

28.

Congress’s power to create federal courts is an example of

a.	eminent domain.	c.	implied powers.
b.	power over territories.	d.	constitutional checks and balances.

29.

Which of the following determines who holds the position of Speaker of the House?

a.	the President	c.	the Senate
b.	the House	d.	the joint houses of Congress

30.

What happens after a bill has been passed and signed by the Speaker of the House?

a.	It is approved by the members of the House.
b.	It is carried to the Senate and placed on the Senate president’s desk.
c.	It is delivered to the President of the United States.
d.	It is debated by the majority and minority floor leaders.

31.

What do voters do in a state presidential primary?

a.	elect a President and a Vice President
b.	express a preference for a presidential candidate
c.	establish each party’s platform
d.	meet in a caucus to decide which candidates to vote for

32.

Why could presidential candidate “A” lose a presidential election despite receiving more votes than candidate “B”?

a.	Candidate “A” received more electoral votes than candidate “B,” but the votes were from smaller states.
b.	Candidate “B” received more electoral votes than Candidate “A.”
c.	Candidate “A” won the majority of electoral votes but lost the popular vote.
d.	Candidate “B” won the popular vote, even though Candidate “A” received more electoral votes.

33.

The Constitution requires the President to execute all federal laws, but what can the President do if he or she has a fundamental disagreement with a particular federal law?

a.	declare the law unconstitutional and send it back to the courts
b.	ignore the law
c.	decide how and in what way to apply the law
d.	veto the law

34.

What power is each President exercising in these three statements?

(1)	Roosevelt sent the Great White Fleet around the world.
(2)	Washington participated in the Whiskey Rebellion of 1794.
(3)	Truman used nuclear weapons.

a.	chief diplomat	c.	commander in chief
b.	leader of the free world	d.	representative signatory of treaties

35.

President’s legislative power : veto ; ____ : clemency

a.	President’s judicial power	c.	President’s imperial power
b.	President’s executive power	d.	President’s wartime power

36.

In any bureaucracy there is a precise division of labor within the organization. Into what three areas is the federal bureaucracy divided?

a.	postal authority, tax collections, and public works
b.	executive branch, legislative branch, and judicial branch
c.	the President, Cabinet, and the Independent Counsels
d.	Executive Office, Cabinet departments, and independent agencies

37.

There are about 400 White House staff members working in the Executive Office of the president. Which of the following directly advises the President in all domestic, foreign, and military matters?

a.	Central Intelligence Agency	c.	Foreign Affairs Council
b.	National Security Council	d.	East Wing

38.

How is the President’s Cabinet chosen?

a.	appointed by the President and confirmed by Congress
b.	appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate
c.	appointed by the President and confirmed by the Supreme Court
d.	appointed by Congress and confirmed by the President

39.

Independent regulatory commissions differ from other independent agencies because

a.	they are protected from the influence of partisan politics.
b.	they administer programs similar to those of the Cabinet departments.
c.	they are largely beyond the reach of presidential direction and control.
d.	all members are from a single political party, usually the President’s.

40.

Study the diagram of progressive income tax. How much would a taxpayer with a taxable income of $37,500 owe in income tax?

a.	$7,500	c.	$2,500
b.	$10,000	d.	$5,000

41.

According to this graph, what explains the change in the public debt between 1981 and 1985?

a.	The debt more than doubled because of deficit financing.
b.	The debt tripled because of deficit spending.
c.	The deficit was cut in half because the public debt rose sharply.
d.	The public debt sharply rose because of surplus investing.

42.

The Constitution specifies that spending measures must originate in the House of Representatives. According to tradition, how has this process begun?

a.	The White House Chief of Staff initiates the process by appointing the head of the Office of Management and Budget.
b.	The President initiates the process by submitting a budget at the beginning of each congressional session.
c.	Members of the Internal Revenue Service’s budget committee initiate the process by submitting an outline of the budget to the President.
d.	The Office of Management and Budget initiates the process by submitting its Annual Report to the Nation.

43.

Which of the following is described as a foreign affairs and defense agency that coordinates the information-gathering of agencies involved in foreign affairs and national defense?

a.	Central Foreign Affairs Council
b.	Immigration and Naturalization Service
c.	Central Intelligence Agency
d.	National Security Council

44.

The Constitution creates two kinds of inferior Federal Courts. How do they differ?

a.	The Constitutional Courts exercise the broad judicial power of the United States, and the Special Courts have narrowly defined powers.
b.	The National Courts deal with national and international issues, and the State Courts hear most of the cases in the country dealing with public matters.
c.	The Supreme Federal Courts exercise the broad judicial power of the United States, and the Special Courts have narrowly defined powers.
d.	The High Courts exercise broad judicial power for the United States, and the Appeals Court handles cases that the lower courts are unable to settle.

45.

According to these bar graphs of inferior courts’ caseloads, which of the following statements is true?

a.	Approximately 200 cases were filed in federal district courts in 1999.
b.	In 1999, the district court caseload was about six times the appeals court caseload of that same year.
c.	Between 1980 and 1999, the appeals court caseload nearly doubled.
d.	In 1990, the numbers of cases filed in the appeals court and the district court were roughly equal.

46.

How are federal district courts different from courts of appeals?

a.	Appeals courts were created by the Constitution and are the final authority on questions of federal law, and district courts have original jurisdiction over most cases heard in the federal courts.
b.	Appeals courts deal with civil and criminal cases from the local and state level, and district courts are gatekeepers that relieve the Supreme Court of the burden of hearing cases from other courts.
c.	Appeals courts are gatekeepers that relieve the Supreme Court of the burden of hearing cases from other courts, and district courts have original jurisdiction over most cases heard in the federal courts.
d.	Appeals courts limit their caseloads to appeals involving constitutional questions and interpretations of federal law, and district courts deal with civil and criminal cases from the local and state levels.

47.

How did Marbury v. Madison illustrate the Supreme Court’s power of judicial review?

a.	The Court determined that Madison intended to deceive the lower courts in his appeal to the Supreme Court.
b.	The Court ruled that Madison must perform any acts he has a clear legal duty to perform.
c.	The Court agreed with Marbury’s argument that Madison’s actions were of criminal intent.
d.	The Court refused Marbury’s request because he based his case on a law the Court concluded was unconstitutional.

48.

Which of the following constitutes cruel and unusual punishment according to the Supreme Court?

a.	mandatory life sentence for a noncapital crime
b.	two prisoners inhabiting a cell meant for one person
c.	preventative detention
d.	narcotics addiction defined as a crime, rather than an illness

49.

How did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and the Civil Rights Act of 1968 influence the Federal Government’s policy of affirmative action?

a.	These Acts upheld the Court’s belief that discrimination was wrong, and affirmative action was the government’s way of making states pay for the abuses of the past.
b.	These Acts challenged long-standing discrimination, and affirmative action was the government’s way of taking steps to remedy the effects of past discriminations.
c.	These Acts challenged long-standing discrimination, and affirmative action allowed the government to create reverse discrimination, which pleased all ethnic groups.
d.	These Acts affirmed discrimination as unconstitutional; however, affirmative action created a loophole that would not allow schools to deny admittance of students because of quotas.

50.

Which Constitutional Amendment guarantees the right of the people to assemble peaceably?

a.	First	c.	Ninth
b.	Second	d.	Tenth

51.

What document was used as the model for the Constitution of the Republic of Texas in 1836?

a.	the Articles of Confederation
b.	the 1800 Constitution of the Republic of Texas
c.	the Constitution of the United States
d.	the Constitution of the Confederate States of America

52.

What is the difference between statutory law and administrative law?

a.	Administrative law is based on the provisions of the United States Constitution and the 50 state constitutions; statutory law is unwritten, judgment law that developed over time.
b.	Statutory law consists of the laws enacted by legislative bodies; administrative law is composed of the rules, orders, and regulations that are issued by federal, state, or local executive offices.
c.	Administrative law consists of the laws enacted by legislative bodies; statutory law is based on the provisions of the United States Constitution and the 50 state constitutions.
d.	Statutory law is composed of the rules, orders, and regulations that are issued by federal, state, or local executive offices; administrative law is unwritten, judgement law that developed over time.

53.

If someone is indicted on criminal charges, the trial may be heard by a petit jury. What does this jury do?

a.	This jury decides on the punishment the accused person will receive, but its decision is directed by state law.
b.	This jury decides whether evidence against a person is sufficient to justify a trial; their decision must be unanimous.
c.	This jury decides whether criminal intent is involved, and five of the six jurors must agree on a verdict.
d.	This jury reviews the evidence, decides the disputed facts, and must reach a unanimous verdict.

54.

Which form of city government has an elected mayor as the chief executive and an elected council as the legislative body?

a.	strong-mayor government	c.	mayor-council government
b.	weak-council government	d.	mayor-commission government

55.

What is the main purpose of city zoning?

a.	It is a phase of city planning that helps ensure the orderly growth of a city.
b.	It encourages random, widespread growth of cities.
c.	It allows cities to raise taxes and fund education.
d.	It creates tax-free regions based on the economic growth and stability of an area.

56.

What is one of the most important and most expensive services provided by the Texas government?

a.	public health	c.	welfare
b.	education	d.	highways

MAIN IDEAS

57.

Which statement about the Senate is true?

a.	It has two members from each State.
b.	Its members are chosen by State legislatures.
c.	Each member represents one congressional district.
d.	Seats are apportioned among the States according to their populations.

58.

In Congress, screening bills for floor consideration is a major duty of

a.	committee members.	c.	constituent representatives.
b.	constituent servants.	d.	politicians.

59.

The regular period of time during which Congress conducts its business is called a

a.	prorogue.	c.	special session.
b.	session.	d.	term.

60.

The number of Senate seats held by each State is

a.	set by the Census Bureau.
b.	based on State populations.
c.	the same as the number of House seats.
d.	fixed by the Constitution.

61.

Members of Congress fill all of the following roles EXCEPT that of

a.	legislator.	c.	Cabinet member.
b.	committee member.	d.	servant to constituents.

62.

The Framers of the Constitution favored bicameralism because

a.	two houses could block the acts of a single President.
b.	it allowed for fair and equal representation of the States at the national level.
c.	Great Britain had only one house of Parliament.
d.	one house would spend more money than two.

63.

Senators are elected to serve

a.	two-year terms.	c.	four-year terms.
b.	three-year terms.	d.	six-year terms.

64.

Before the 17th Amendment was adopted, senators were chosen by

a.	the people of each State.	c.	special State conventions.
b.	the State legislatures.	d.	select House committees.

65.

When the Senate's Republican caucus wants party members to vote for a bill, the person who determines how many votes can be counted on is the

a.	senior senator.	c.	floor leader.
b.	policy-committee chairperson.	d.	whip.

66.

The main reason that Congress creates committees is to

a.	divide the workload.	c.	introduce new bills.
b.	educate new members.	d.	create party power bases.

67.

Which of the following is a way a bill can become a law without the President's signature?

a.	The President delegates the signing of a bill to the Vice President.
b.	The President waits until the Congress is not in session.
c.	The President fails to act on the bill within 10 days of receiving it while Congress is in session.
d.	The President leaves the country.

68.

How and when bills reach the floor of the House is decided by the

a.	Ways and Means Committee.	c.	Appropriations Committee.
b.	Rules Committee.	d.	Judiciary Committee.

69.

Unlike the House, the Senate has a legislative process with

a.	few limits on debate.	c.	no roll-call voting.
b.	strict limits on debate.	d.	no voice voting.

70.

In the Vice President's absence, the presiding officer of the Senate is the

a.	Dean of the Senate.	c.	president pro tempore.
b.	majority floor leader.	d.	Speaker of the Senate.

71.

The main way to end a filibuster is by

a.	a two-thirds vote of the Senate.	c.	convening a conference committee.
b.	invoking the Cloture Rule.	d.	voting the filibusterer out of office.

72.

In order to prevent a bill passed by Congress from becoming law, the President may

a.	sign it and attach a veto message.
b.	refuse to sign it and attach a veto message.
c.	sign it after ten days if Congress is in session.
d.	negotiate a compromise bill with Congress.

73.

Proposed measures that apply to specific individuals or places are

a.	public bills.	c.	concurrent resolutions.
b.	private bills.	d.	riders.

74.

When a bill is introduced in the House, it is FIRST

a.	given to the Rules Committee.	c.	given a number and title.
b.	read aloud in full.	d.	debated by the full House.

75.

Most measures introduced in the House die at which of these steps?

a.	committee	c.	quorum
b.	cloture	d.	floor vote

76.

Which of the following options is NOT available to a President who has just received a bill passed by Congress?

a.	sign the bill within 10 days	c.	veto the bill
b.	sign the bill after 15 days	d.	use a pocket veto

77.

The purpose of a filibuster is to

a.	invoke the rule of cloture.	c.	speed up action on a bill.
b.	prevent quorum calls.	d.	prevent action on a bill.

78.

In case the President is disabled, the way the Vice President becomes President is determined by the

a.	original Constitution.	c.	Twenty-Fifth Amendment.
b.	Presidential Succession Act.	d.	Congress.

79.

According to the Constitution, the President must

a.	be a man who owns property.
b.	be at least 35 years of age.
c.	have held one major public office.
d.	have lived in the U. S. for at least 20 years.

80.

A President can serve no more than ____ years in office.

a.	8	c.	10
b.	4	d.	12

81.

The Framers of the Constitution called for the President to be elected by

a.	Congress.	c.	a body of electors.
b.	a direct vote of the people.	d.	the State legislatures.

82.

The President's military powers

a.	are strictly limited to times of war.
b.	are shared with Congress.
c.	only apply to the use of the United States Army and its weapons.
d.	may never be used to keep the domestic peace.

83.

In essence, the ordinance power gives the President the right to

a.	organize the judicial branch.	c.	administer laws.
b.	set up offices.	d.	appoint federal employees.

84.

The difference between a treaty and an executive agreement is that

a.	a treaty is with a foreign state but an executive agreement is domestic.
b.	a treaty must begin in the Senate but an executive agreement is made wholly by the President.
c.	the President needs Senate approval for a treaty but not for an executive agreement.
d.	a treaty ends or prevents a war but an executive agreement does not.

85.

The ____ appoints Cabinet members ____

a.	President; with Senate approval.
b.	President; with House approval.
c.	Senate; with the President's approval.
d.	President; without Senate approval.

86.

A President can use armed forces abroad

a.	once Congress has approved the decision.
b.	after a declaration of war has been issued by Congress.
c.	pending approval by Congress within 48 hours.
d.	at his or her own discretion.

87.

The Federal Government is considered a bureaucracy primarily because it

a.	was established according to the practice and traditions set by past Presidents as they fulfilled their executive functions.
b.	consists of many agencies that do not function very efficiently in the performance of their duties.
c.	is a complex system of organization based on certain principles.
d.	is headed by the President, who represents the main bureau, or office.

88.

In the executive branch, the title of department is reserved for

a.	agencies of Cabinet rank.	c.	agencies of the judicial branch.
b.	independent agencies.	d.	agencies of congressional rank.

89.

The civil service system was finally established because of

a.	President Washington's actions creating the tradition.
b.	President Jefferson's support of political acceptability.
c.	President Jackson's development of the spoils system.
d.	President Garfield's assassination by an angry office seeker.

90.

The MAIN goal of the civil service today is to

a.	do away with the spoils system and other forms of patronage.
b.	provide jobs for people seeking federal positions.
c.	make sure that federal employees are not partisan.
d.	recruit and keep the best available people in the federal work force.

91.

The members of the President's Cabinet, after being appointed by the President, are then subject to

a.	approval by public caucus.	c.	House approval.
b.	Senate approval.	d.	approval by the Vice President.

92.

Which of the following best summarizes the MAIN purpose of the Executive Office of the President?

a.	helping the President carry out his or her duties as chief executive
b.	assisting the President in his or her dealings with Congress
c.	keeping the President in touch with the Cabinet
d.	aiding the Vice President in the preparation of the budget

93.

Which of the following statements about federal judges is TRUE?

a.	They must have had previous service as State court judges or attorneys.
b.	They serve a fixed term of office, set by Congress.
c.	They are appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate.
d.	All of the above are true.

94.

Which federal court has original jurisdiction over MOST cases heard in federal court?

a.	district court
b.	court of appeals
c.	the Supreme Court
d.	the Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit

95.

Most importantly, the Supreme Court is called the High Court because it is the

a.	best court in the country.
b.	only court established by the Constitution.
c.	first court in which most of the important federal cases are heard.
d.	last court in which federal questions can be decided.

96.

The term of office for constitutional court judges is determined by

a.	the Constitution.	c.	the Department of Justice.
b.	Congress.	d.	the President.

97.

The Supreme Court's decision in Marbury v. Madison

a.	enabled William Marbury to become a justice of the peace.
b.	stripped the President of his power to appoint federal judges.
c.	established the Court's power of judicial review.
d.	none of the above.

98.

Legal cases in the District of Columbia and the territories that belong to the United States are settled in:

a.	the courts of the State nearest the district or territory.
b.	a separate system of courts for each territory and each district like those at the State and federal levels.
c.	a system of local courts like those in a city or town.
d.	a system based on mediation and arbitration rather than legal confrontation.

99.

The power of judicial review is held

a.	exclusively by the Supreme Court.
b.	only by federal courts.
c.	by most federal and State courts.
d.	only by courts with appellate jurisdiction.

IDENTIFYING KEY TERMS

100.

The court that first hears a case is said to have

a.	appellate jurisdiction.	c.	original jurisdiction.
b.	exclusive jurisdiction.	d.	concurrent jurisdiction.